Note: this assignment is for students in Group IV only.
Please respond to the following question in
approximately two pages (double spaced). (Needless to say this should
be your own original work.)
In the third paragraph of §20 of the Fifth Logical
Investigation (in last week's reading), Husserl says that acts' having
the ``same content'' (or same matter) can't be reduced to their having
the same ``intentional object.'' Based on the reason he gives there,
how might he have wanted to modify that conclusion later? See
especially Ideas §§88 and 89. In what sense does having the
same ``noematic'' object indeed mean having the same content (same
``matter,'' in the sense of the Logical Investigations)? What
has changed in between?