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- (Introduction) Explain the distinction between ``a priori'' and
``a posteriori,'' and between ``analytic'' and ``synthetic.'' Why must
all analytic judgments be a priori? Give examples, other than Kant's
own examples, of judgments which are analytic, synthetic a posteriori,
and synthetic a priori, according to Kant. Why is it surprising that
some synthetic judgments (according to Kant) are also a priori? Why
does Kant think it important to show how such synthetic a priori
judgments are possible? (Give at least one reason.)
- (Aesthetic) Explain Kant's distinction
between (human) ``intuitions'' and ``concepts.'' How does an
intuition, as opposed to a concept, relate to an empirical object?
What is the matter of our intuitions, according to Kant, and what is
their form? How does existence of a (pure) form of (human) intuition
explain why the laws of geometry, for example, can be known a priori
(by humans), and how does it restrict what they apply to? That is: how
can we know that the laws of geometry do not apply to things
in themselves?
- (Metaphysical Deduction) Using simple empirical examples (other
than Kant's own), explain what ``concepts'' are, and what role they
play in typical ``judgments.'' Explain why, according to Kant, the
various fundamental types of judgment correspond to fundamental pure
concepts of the understanding (categories): what role does the
understanding play in both cases? (You need not talk in any detail
about the Table of Judgments or the Table of Categories, although if
you can discuss a specific example of correspondence, that
would be great.)
- (Transcendental Deduction, part I) A deduction,
according to Kant, establishes the legitimacy or ``objective
validity'' of a concept -- that is, it explains how we know that the
manifold of appearances can be synthesized (by the imagination) in
such a way as to be unified by that concept. Explain (1) why,
according to Kant, we don't normally need a deduction of empirical
concepts; (2) why, if we do want a deduction of an empirical concept,
it will be what Kant calls an ``empirical deduction''; and (3) why an
alleged empirical deduction of a pure concept (for example, of
one of the categories) would not be a deduction at all.
- (Transcendental Deduction, part II) The transcendental unity of
apperception means the possibility of thinking the whole manifold of
appearances together as mine. What does that have to do with the
categories, according to Kant? What does it have to do with the
possibility of there being an object of experience--that is
(according to Kant), the possibility that something guarantees the
appearances will agree with each other according to a rule?
- (Schematism) Explain why an empirical concept, such as the
concept dog, does not apply directly to appearances (or
images) of dogs. What role does the faculty of imagination play in
allowing such a concept to be applied? How does this involve a
``schema''? Give another example which shows the role of the
imagination and its schemata in the case of mathematical
concepts. Why is there a special problem with there being schemata for
pure concepts of the understanding, such as the categories?
- (Analogies) The Highest Principle of All Synthetic Judgments is,
roughly, that the appearances must be such that they can all be
thought together as mine (in the unity of apperception). What does
this have to with the categories, and with the schemata of the
categories? How does it rule out certain synthetic judgments as (not
self-contradictory, but) empty? How does it make other synthetic
judgments a priori? Explain this in particular with respect to the
judgment that every event has a cause (Second Analogy).
- (Phenomena and Noumena) The Transcendental Analytic has shown
that all the objects of our knowledge are mere appearances. Explain
why this seems to mean -- that is, why it might tempt us into
the mistaken conclusion -- that we do, after all, know something about the way things are in themselves. Why might it seem to show that things in themselves are substances (whose
accidents we know)? And why might it seem to show, on the
other hand, that things in themselves are causes (whose effects we
know)? Why, if either one of those were correct, would we know
something about noumena -- that is, objects which an understanding
can think on its own, without sense? (Note that it is not obvious that ``noumena,'' so defined, are the same thing as
``things in themselves.'')
- (Amphiboly) Consider the concepts of identity and difference. Explain why we must be able to apply them to objects if
we are to think of those objects under concepts (for example, to think
that all objects of a certain kind are dogs, or that some of them
are). How, according to Kant, can we actually apply these concepts (of
identity and difference) to objects: that is, what makes two objects
different? (Hint: how is space involved?) Why would that not work,
according to Kant, if the objects of our knowledge were noumena?
Next: About this document ...
Up: Phil. 106exam1, Spring 10
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Abe Stone
2010-04-27